This is a great question that doesn't really have an easy answer. Many of the intuitive aspects of numbers break down at infinite sets. For example, we use the word cardinality to discuss the size of these sets and the cardinality of the algebraic numbers is equal to that of the rationals. However, even though they are all infinite sets, the cardinality of the irrationals is greater than that of the rationals/algebraics and equal to that of the transcendentals.Does the number of all irrational elements divided by the number of all rational elements equal the number of all transcendental elements divided by the number of all algebraic elements?
Are these ratios otherwise comparable?
Why do not say I do not know?If you feel that there is an error in what I have suggested, you should correct it or explain why it is an error.
Otherwise, you try to act your age and avoid hurling childish abuse. In fact, if you have nothing of substance to add to the thread you really ought to consider taking your own advice.