E eonrin Apr 2019 3 0 canada Apr 11, 2019 #1 Hello, can you help me solve this problem? It's urgent please: Let 1 <= m <= n be two integers. Note by C (n; m) = (n!) / ((n-m)! m!) Show that (gcd (n, m) / n) (C (n, m)) is an integer. Tip: BÃ©zout's theorem. Thank you. Last edited by a moderator: Apr 11, 2019

Hello, can you help me solve this problem? It's urgent please: Let 1 <= m <= n be two integers. Note by C (n; m) = (n!) / ((n-m)! m!) Show that (gcd (n, m) / n) (C (n, m)) is an integer. Tip: BÃ©zout's theorem. Thank you.

M mathman Forum Staff May 2007 6,913 762 Apr 11, 2019 #2 (gcd (n, m) / n) (C (n, m)) Click to expand... Clarify statement.

skipjack Forum Staff Dec 2006 21,387 2,410 Apr 11, 2019 #3 See this article. The hint was presumably referring to BÃ©zout's identity (also called BÃ©zout's lemma) rather than BÃ©zout's theorem.

See this article. The hint was presumably referring to BÃ©zout's identity (also called BÃ©zout's lemma) rather than BÃ©zout's theorem.

E eonrin Apr 2019 3 0 canada Apr 11, 2019 #4 It's actually called thÃ©orÃ¨me de BÃ©zout in French. I maybe translated it wrong; sorry. Last edited by a moderator: Apr 12, 2019